Volume 1 URE Flashcards

1. (001) Which type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need? a. Off-equipment. b. On-equipment. c. Preventive. d. Corrective.

2. (001) Which of the following is used to highlight trends, benchmarks, or safety conditions relating to maintenance equipment, personnel, training, or processes? a. Cross-tells. b. Self-inspections. c. Technical orders. d. National stock numbers.

3. (001) Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the Intermediate Repair Enhancement Program? a. Wing commander. b. Wing vice-commander. c. Maintenance group commander. d. Maintenance group superintendent.

4. (002) Which maintenance capability category is performed at backshop level and consists of off-equipment maintenance? a. Two-level maintenance. b. Organizational. c. Intermediate. d. Depot.

5. (002) All requests for depot level assistance must be coordinated through a. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation and the Maintenance Group commander. b. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation and Maintenance Management Analysis. c. Quality Assurance and Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation. d. Quality Assurance and Maintenance Management Analysis.

6. (002) What do you call wing-level maintenance facilities providing intermediate-level maintenance repair support for multiple Air Force units within a particular theater of operations? a. Regional Repair Centers. b. Centralized Repair Facilities. c. Programmed Depot Maintenance. d. Intermediate Repair Enhancement Program.

7. (003) What program promotes identifying and correcting system deficiencies before they affect combat capability? a. Quality Assurance. b. Reliability and Maintainability. c. Programmed Depot Maintenance. d. Intermediate Repair Enhancement.

8. (003) Which category of Deficiency Report should you submit if the equipment has a deficiency that if uncorrected, may cause major loss or damage to equipment and no workaround is known? a. 1A. b. 1B. c. 2A. d. 2B.

9. (003) Which Maintenance Group agency provides technical assistance for Deficiency Reports to work center supervisors? a. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation. b. Programs and Resources Flight. c. Maintenance Supply Liaison. d. Quality Assurance.

10. (004) Which of the following is used to assign responsibilities, direct actions, and prescribe procedures within a subordinate function (i.e., a staff office, a branch, a squadron, etc.)? a. Technical orders. b. Support agreements. c. Air Force instructions. d. Operating instructions.

11. (004) When Operating Instructions (OI) apply to multiple groups, they should be published as a. wing OIs. b. separate group OIs. c. support agreements. d. Air Force instructions.

12. (005) Which AFTO IMT is used to maintain a permanent history of significant maintenance actions on end-items of equipment? a. 95. b. 244. c. 427. d. 781 series.

13. (005) Printed copies of the AFTO IMT 95 are not required to accompany end items upon transfer a. in units where jet engines, jet engine adjustable nozzles, or thrust reversers are involved in frequent rotation from one aerospace vehicle to another. b. as long as an entry has been made in the necessary maintenance information system verifying that the basic items have been accounted for. c. to/from locations that have access to the necessary maintenance information systems to retrieve the historical information. d. in the case of helicopter blades and tail rotor blades being transferred into the disposal system.

14. (005) What AFTO IMT is used to document accumulated cycles, operating time, and maintenance history, as well as pertinent manufacturing data for jet engine turbine wheels? a. 781J. b. 245. c. 244. d. 95.

15. (006) Which Integrated Maintenance Database System-Central Database (IMDS-CDB) subsystem provides the capability to track engines and their components for time-changes and inspections and establishes and maintains the installed-on relationship between the engine and components? a. C-E Equipment Status. b. Job Data Documentation. c. Status and Inventory Reporting. d. Comprehensive Engine Management System.